Catholic Dogma Answered Scripturally
All quotations come from the Authorized Version in English AKA the King James Version
blasphemy : noun
The Mary of the Bible
The Dogmas of the Roman Catholic Mary
Mary as intermediary
"For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time." 1 Titus 2:5
Can we find more verses stating the He is the mediator? YES. In Hebrews we read,
"How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God? And for this cause He is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance. For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator." Heb 9:14-16 (underline added)
"And to Jesus the mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of sprinkling, that speaketh better things than that of Abel. See that ye refuse not him that speaketh. For if they escaped not who refused him that spake on earth, much more shall not we escape, if we turn away from him that speaketh from heaven:" Heb 12:24-25 (underline added)
In other words this heresy is not just an extra-Biblical addition detracting from the sovereignty of Jesus (God), but, it also contains a blasphemy. If Jesus is God (if you do not believe this point, you need read no further because believing that statement is a prerequisite of being a true Christian), and Jesus is the ONE mediator between God and man, then, assigning the right of Mary to mediate between you and Jesus (God) is assigning the attributes of God to a woman. That is blasphemy plain and simple. The verse above is a direct statement that The Son of God came as a man to have the right for God, the Son, to mediate between God, the Father and man. This is one of the Godhead mediating between another part of the Godhead on our behalf so that NO ONE (namely any high priest) stands between us and our Lord, God. It is a wonderful and wondrous blessing that all mankind can now speak directly to God through the blood of Jesus.
Why should we ever introduce any barrier or intermediary between us and our God ever again? Better yet, why would the Roman Catholic church demand the need for someone to stand in between you and your Father? Shouldn't you have the right to talk to Him directly? Jesus died for that purpose. How do we know this? When Jesus died on the cross we read,
"Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;" Mat 27:50,51
Ahhh. The veil in the temple rent from top to bottom. What does that mean? The veil to the Holy of Holy which was the place of the very Presence of God on earth. This is the place that the High Priest entered once a year to offer the atonement sacrifice for everyone. This is the sacrifice we have been reading about throughout this site that Jesus gave on the cross. So, directly stated in the Word we see that the veil that separated us from our God was removed by God when He died on the cross. He did this because He bought our salvation and with His blood on our lives the Holy Spirit (God) is able to dwell in us now. That is why we are temples; we are priests; we can talk directly to our God. (Praise be to the Most High, Forever!) Let's show this quickly in scripture as well.
"Know ye not that ye are the
temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you? If any
man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of
God is holy, which temple ye are." 1 Corinthians 3:16,17
That's two different places. It's not a verse taken out of context but a doctrine of Christ that you can depend on. Do we find this foretold in the Old Testament (the ultimate test of a doctrine of the New Testament)? YES, we do.
"A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you a heart of flesh. And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them." Ezekiel 36:26,27 (This reference is a prophecy for the Jews that are saved through Jesus under the same covenant by which we are saved. Therefore, we share in this promise of the Lord.)
"And ye shall know that I am in the midst of Israel, and that I am the LORD your God, and none else: and my people shall never be ashamed. And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions: and also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit." Joel 2:27,29
We see that God sent prophesies that the time would come when He could dwell within us. But, how can you prove that this prophesy relates to Christians? Because, in Acts they quote the same passage explaining the manifestation of the Holy Spirit at Pentecost.
"But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; and it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams: and on my servants and on my handmaidens I will pour out in those days of my Spirit; and they shall prophesy:" Act 2:16-18
Ahhh, again. So, we know that we are understanding the direct quotes of the Holy Word. Let's recap that in short.
It is a very simple doctrine. But, the adversary does not want you to pray directly to your God. He has always worked to separate us from our Father. The only one who would ever put forward such a barrier between God and his children is Satan. How do I know this?
"For God so loved the world that He sent His only begotten Son , that whosoever believeth in Him shall have everlasting life" John 3:16
God loved us enough to die for our relationship. If He was willing to suffer the shame of the cross to have a personal relationship with you, to be able to dwell in you, to be able to pour out His Holy Spirit upon you and put His Word (this Word) in your heart, WHY IN THE WORLD WOULD HE EVER RE-ERECT THE BARRIER BETWEEN HIMSELF AND HIS BELOVED CHILDREN? (If you can answer that question honestly, you will be blessed of God in your knowledge of Him and your relationship with Him.) For who dies for his friend if his death is worthless and will not save his friend. Who gives all that he has to buy a precious pearl if the price of everything he gave was insufficient? He would not. Why die for nothing? Why give up everything you have and end up with nothing?
This brings us full circle to the most precious nature of the love of our God towards us, that He gave His life a ransom for us paying the price once and forever. I know this is getting into another dogma regarding working to attain salvation, but, there is no more perfect place than this to address it. I ask again.
WHY IN THE WORLD WOULD HE EVER RE-ERECT THE BARRIER BETWEEN HIMSELF AND HIS BELOVED CHILDREN? For who dies for his friend if his death is worthless and will not save his friend? Who gives all that he has to buy a precious pearl if the price of everything he gave was insufficient? He would not. Why die for nothing? Why give up everything you have and end up with nothing?
Only a fool would sacrifice so great a sacrifice if it were not sufficient for your salvation, a full and final payment for you. But we know He paid in full. The words we read above often translated as "It is finished" in Greek better translate "It is complete" in reference to a debt. Search this out in a Greek lexicon. IT WILL BLESS YOU! Also, Paul confirms this,
"For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's." 1 Corinthians 6:20
Does Paul say you are
"being purchased", "you will be bought", or "He is buying you"?
Simple answer from the texts above. Did Mary die for you? Did Mary shed blood for you? Then, neither she nor any other man or woman on this earth or dead can redeem you. This is blasphemous on its face. God said
"Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; a just God and a Savior; there is none beside me." Isaiah 45:21
"Thus saith the LORD, your redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; For your sake I have sent to Babylon, and have brought down all their nobles, and the Chaldeans, whose cry is in the ships." Isaiah 43:14
We have on Lord, one savior and He has said over and over that He alone is our Redeemer. We need no one else and we cannot have anyone else. Logic says that if we have another redeemer or an additional redeemer, then, we are worsipping another god because, the LORD God has said He is one and He is our Redeemer. It makes you wonder, "why would anyone introduce another redeemer or co-redeemer since by definition that is not of God?"
The name, queen of heaven is, in fact, Biblical. Seemingly unbeknownst to Catholics, the identity of the queen of heaven is the opposite of the Mary mother of Jesus and what she stood for. First, let me recognize the faith and piety of the blessed virgin that was called of our God to bear His Son. She was a very special faithful child of God and truly an honor to her household and forefathers. However, she is not the queen of heaven described in scripture. Who is the "queen of heaven" then? Let us ask God for He has answered all things for us. You will find the queen of heaven in your Bible in Jeremiah 7:18. Who does this term refer to in reality? Read for yourself.
"Seest thou not what they do in the cities of Judah and in the streets of Jerusalem? The children gather wood, and the fathers kindle the fire, and the women knead their dough, to make cakes to the queen of heaven, and to pour out drink offerings unto other gods, that they may provoke me to anger. Do they provoke me to anger? saith the LORD: do they not provoke themselves to the confusion of their own faces? Therefore thus saith the Lord GOD; Behold, mine anger and my fury shall be poured out upon this place, upon man, and upon beast, and upon the trees of the field, and upon the fruit of the ground; and it shall burn, and shall not be quenched. Thus saith the LORD of hosts, the God of Israel; Put your burnt offerings unto your sacrifices, and eat flesh. For I spoke not unto your fathers, nor commanded them in the day that I brought them out of the land of Egypt, concerning burnt offerings or sacrifices: but this thing commanded I them, saying, Obey my voice, and I will be your God, and ye shall be my people: and walk ye in all the ways that I have commanded you, that it may be well unto you." Jeremiah 7:17-23 (underline added)
Here we read clearly that the queen of heaven was part of pagan rite. Here we see the children of God making cake and drink offerings to other gods, namely the queen of heaven as she is the only one recognized by name in the passage. This idolatrous practice, offering things to the queen of heaven and other false gods, is heresy of the highest order, such that God said He would an endlessly scorch them and their belongings. The queen of heaven concept and the "Mother and Child" cult of ancient Rome are easily found in history. However, as we only cite the Word of God in this site, you will need to research out those cults of the Babylonian system on your own to get non-Biblical historical information. We are simply listing the Words of God that answer and/or contradict what men have taught us. To research mother cults on your own, you can find a list of words to look up on this page. We will provide no personal opinion or research outside the Bible. But, knowing now who the Bible calls the "mother of heaven" could you ever again denigrate beloved Mary with such a idolatrous title?
The Immaculate Conception
On this title given to Mary, I can only ask that anyone provide any proof text from the Holy Canon. Mary is described repeatedly as the Mother of Jesus. And, yes, Jesus is God in the flesh. However, as there is not even a single reference to Mary in the New Testament history or the Old Testament prophecies denoting her as "Mother of God", the title by definition is extra-Biblical. I will cite what her son, Jesus, said of her and her relationship to Him. Also, I will cite what Mary said which addresses the word "blessed" often improperly associated with "sinless".
"And it came to pass, that, when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost: and she spake out with a loud voice, and said, Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb. And whence is this to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me? For, lo, as soon as the voice of thy salutation sounded in mine ears, the babe leaped in my womb for joy. And blessed is she that believed for there shall be a performance of those things which were told her from the Lord. And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord, and my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Savior. For he hath regarded the low estate of his handmaiden: for, behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed. For He that is mighty hath done to me great things; and holy is His name." Luke 1:41-49
Elizabeth says Mary is blessed. Then Mary exalts God, not herself. Then she says all will call her "blessed", which has come true. Then she exalted God again. She never once exalts herself. She truly is blessed and has blessed us. What does "blessed" mean? According to Webster the English word means "made happy or prosperous; extolled; pronounced happy". It talks about the emotion of joy with no implication about a sinless nature. Check the Greek lexicons to be assured the the English word here "blessed" is the same meaning as the original Greek.
"And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked. But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it." Luke 11:27,28
Here Jesus takes the praise given to His mother and extends it equally to all that here God's Word and obey, the children of God, Christians.
"While he yet talked to the people, behold, his mother and his brethren stood without, desiring to speak with him. Then one said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren stand without, desiring to speak with thee. But he answered and said unto him that told him, Who is my mother? and who are my brethren? And he stretched forth his hand toward his disciples, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren! For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother." Mat 12:46-50
So, here we see that Jesus has said all of His followers, us (if you believe and accept Jesus as Lord and Savior), as His family: not just His family BUT the very same as His "mother", brother, and sister. Can our Lord be any clearer? This makes two times that He makes the believer in Him equal to His mother. Mark 3:32-35 and Luke 8"20,21 recount the very same statement concerning this Word of our Lord so it cannot be chalked up to a Greek variant. Why did God feel that this statement regarding Mary was so important that it needed to be recorded three times? You tell me.
How did Jesus address His mother?
This is an aside to the issue, but, I still think it has bearing. When Jesus hung dying on the cross, gave charge of His mother to John, his beloved disciple.
Joh 19:26 When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the
disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman,
behold thy son!
He was at this moment God dying for our sins. Therefore, He acted and spoke as God in duty. How does He address His mother? Does He call her "Mom", "mother" or any familial honorific or title? No. He addresses Mary directly as "woman". Now, I do not know about your mother, but, I would have to be dying to call my mother "woman" and not get slapped or rebuked. We see here a curious differentiation between how Jesus referred to God, the Father, and His flesh and blood mother, Mary.
How did He address or title God?
And he said, Abba, Father, all things are possible unto thee; take away this cup from me: nevertheless not what I will, but what thou wilt. Mark 14:36
He calls God, the English equivalent of "daddy". "Abba" is a form of "ab" which is father in Hebrew. Does Jesus call Mary "Ame" or a similar form of "mommy" in Hebrew? No. He NEVER calls His mother "mother" not even ONCE in any recorded scripture. Yet He calls us, the believers, His mother. Does this sound like a God who wants to venerate or exalt an earthly mother? Can tradition of a church disagree with Jesus own Words and still be true?
I do not know that the issue of the teaching of the perpetual virginity of Mary is important enough a topic as to undermine the Gospel or lead a Christian into heresy or idolatry. However, there is a passage referring to the brothers of Jesus that does seem to speak obviously to the matter. Email me if it is important to you. But, I do not think it should be addressed on this site one way or the other.